cuchodp

As a Spaniard I need to ask:

Why is Don Pedro a black man...? A very strange choice. Clearly they needed to put a black character somewhere -as always- and I guess the Spanish Ambassador was the easy option, but...

There where no black people AT ALL in Spain at that period, not to say a noble one or knight. Even if some of you are thinking on our moorish heritage I tell you:

1. The vast majority of the moors were expelled from the Iberian peninsula and they were replaced with people brought from Castilla. The small still remaining don't count, because they weren't (and are not) black.

2. Moors are from north of the Sahara desert, black population are from south of the sahara desert. More over, the biggest past of the population in Al-Andalus previous to the Castillian conquest were descendents of the Omeya tribes, from the actual Syria.

There were no black population in continental Spain until the XIX century, and those were from Ecuatorial Guinea and Cuba. Certainly, there were no Spanish politician of any kind or level without a long lineage of nobility or aristocracy, same as anywhere in the rest of the continent in those days.

So no, a spanish noble black man is as accurate as the characters from "Bridgerton" portraying an English noble family during the Regency, but hey, it's just historical fiction, same as the Netflix series

The rest of the show, a bit of a soap opera but very enjoyable and entertaining.

-- Excuse my english as is not my 1st language.